Did Jesus speak in tongues? Did He need to if He had perfect communion with His Father?
I am unconvinced by the two scripture references which people use to suggest Jesus spoke in Tongues.
One is Luke 10 21, where Jesus “rejoiced”, and another is John 11 33 where Jesus “was agitated in his spirit” (one old version says “groaned” but this translation is not so accurate).
Neither of these are plain enough to mean Tongues. In other New Testament places, where “Tongues” is meant, then “Tongues” is said, so if it is meant in these places, why is it not said?
Other ideas are:
1. Since he had perfect communication with the Father, he did not need tongues. (But Tongues are not JUST for communication.)
2. He knew all the languages, so he COULDN’T use tongues. (This one is not remotely sensible!)
The clue for me is to realise that speaking in tongues, and presumably interpreting them, are post-Pentecost phenomena. There is no recorded instance of Tongues before then, though all the other gifts of the Spirit are seen in Old Testament times.
Very simply, Jesus was the last and greatest of the OLD Covenant Prophets.
His Holy Spirit empowered gifts were of THAT era, not of the era of the Pentecost-empowered church. He was himself the power behind the Pentecost experience, but he did not enjoy it at the same time as the disciples. At that time he was the Sender of the Holy Spirit, not the receiver of Him.
However, Jesus WAS the first to announce that his followers would speak in tongues. In Mark 16 17 He tells us that his followers will “speak in new Tongues”. So while there is no recorded instance of Him speaking in Tongues, he gave the gift his own formal recognition.
Someone has pointed out that the entire New Testament was written by people who spoke in Tongues!